New here, just looking for support and info. I am confused and just generally mad about the whole process and findings.
A little backstory:
My husband was diagnosed with Crohn's disease in March of 2008. He was very sick. Looking back he has always (since I have known him) had loose stool or diarrhea and having at least 6-8 bowel movements a day. He got suddenly sick at the beginning of 2008 with more bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss and vomiting and he was seen in the ER and referred to the GI clinic here at Balboa. He had a colonoscopy in early March 2008 in which they immidiatly diagnosed the Crohn's disease. A couple days later after starting meds, he was called back by the doctors and told to come to the hospital immidiatly because he needed to be hospitalized due to an abcess on his colon that they said needed to be drained. They also said that he had a few fistulas and severe anemia. He was admitted to the hospital where he say for a while until they decided that he was so sick that he needed to be on complete bowel rest. They inserted a picc line in which he was "fed" for the next 3 months. He was unable to eat or drink anything and after he was released from the hospital he was on IV antibiotics 2 times a day (administered by myself). After 3 months and losing nearly 40 lbs. (he is 5'10 and normally weighed about 165), they decided he was healthy enough to perform a partial right hemicolectomy. He went in for surgery in mid June. It was supposed to be laprascopic but the surgeons ended up opening him up because they needed to remove 31 centimeters of colon that had swelling the size of softballs in 2 areas. He stayed in the hospital for about another week and was released. He was able to start eating but was still in a lot of pain. He felt great after a while, was having closer to normal bowel movements and the post op colonoscopy looked like there was no disease at all.
He has had some bit of relapse since then. He is back to 6-8 loose (and diarrhea) BM's a day, some abdominal pain, and lots of gas and bloating. He has also had severe acid reflux since the surgery. They repeated another colonoscopy in January which looked "okay", there were new areas of swelling but nothing that they needed to be really worried about. They started him on a new med (Enticourt) to go with the Pentasa, Imuran, and prilosec. He now takes at least 21 pills a day and still has the same bowel habits and pain. My husband had his VA interviews and exams in January of this year and we just heard back last week with his findings. A permanant medical retirement at 40% (30% for the Crohn's and 10% for a shoulder injury). We are upset for many reasons. I have read the guidelines on where the percentages are calculated and why and it doesn't make sense to me. They told us that it is the 30% because of his condition now and to be at a higher percentage, he would have to be emaciated and sick and having other symptoms. When we told them he has obviously been there they told us that it is based on his condition now. His condition now isn't the greatest, he would say fair. They told us that they have to get you to a point where you have been treated for your ilness and to a point where you can go up to a medical board. It seems to me that then no one would be rated any higher. They also didn't include his scar from the surgery (which in itself has been confusing on how they rate them). They basically lumped everything in with the crohn's including the anemia, scar and acid reflux. There are also other medical conditions that they have said are not service related. The main one is male infertility. We have had 2 children while he was in the Marines and now he has been diagnosed with male infertility while still in the marines. Why would that not be service related? The people we have been talking to have not really been helpful, just dismissive. The JAG just seemed to want to shoo us out and not really answer any questions. We have already see the DAV and would like to appeal the findings but they are telling us that we need to provide new medical evidence. I don't get that because it is all in his original medical records. I don't know if we are just "making a mountain out of a mole hill" or if this is actually wrong on their part.
We are at a loss now. He has been in for over 10 years. Sorry to have rambled so long, I am just wondering if anyone has any insight or info that might be helpful. Thanks in advance.
